Genesis 6:6 indicates that “it repented Jehovah that he had made man.” Does this mean that God regretted his creation?

The Bible denies that man is saved by works of human merit. But what about “works of God.” Study this commonly misunderstood issue with us.

Heaven will be a wonderful reward for those faithful to God. Unfortunately the biblical teaching on this theme has been grossly perverted in numerous ways. Study this great topic in this article.

All of us who profess to following Jesus Christ would like to think we are “spiritual” people. But are we? There can be a vast chasm between merely being a member of the church, and being genuinely spiritual.

If God blesses his people, why are there so many Christians who are sick or poor?

How does the sincere Bible student explain the terrible sins of some of its greatest heroes?

A remarkable passage in John demonstrates that a human response is required in God’s plan of salvation.

Does this passage teach the much coveted doctrine of “the perseverance of the saints”? No it does not. This article explains why.

What does the Bible mean when it suggests that God may “send a strong delusion” to some people (2 Thes. 2:11)? Would the “God of truth” actually “send” a lie? Too, is it possible for a person to harden his heart to the extent that he is beyond the hope of salvation?

The Bible does not lay down a prohibited vocabulary list, but it certainly contains guidelines that will assist the devout person in using speech that is well-pleasing to the Lord and to others.

Why do Christians teach that the dead are conscious, when the Scriptures refer to death as “sleep”?

Grace is one of the most thrilling terms in scripture. It is a tragedy of no small magnitude that it is so perverted by the religious world. What does the Bible really teach about the amazing favor of God?

Is the use of a clerical title, e.g., “Reverend,” “Father,” “Rabbi,” or “Doctor”—within the framework of religious service—consistent with the will of God? This week’s question discusses this issue.

Is the “silence of the Scripures” authoritative. The Bible itself states that it is.

Many denominationalists have long argued that “for the remission of sins” in Acts 2:38 can mean “because of” (i.e. – be baptized because your sins have been remitted). But the same term is found in Matthew 26:28 – clearly indicating the meaning of the term.

The first verse of the Gospel of John is absolutely brimming with meaning, and it refutes a host of popular errors.

What is the correct interpretation of this widely misunderstood passage?

The sensational news story regarding the return of the kidnapped Salt Lake City teen has caused public attention to be focused upon certain aspects of Mormon doctrine. This week’s Penpoints article highlights a couple of these issues.

Why do most modern translations use the word baptize, an anglicized Greek word, rather than translating the Greek word into English?